CFA-Level-I Cuttin G Edge Resources - Cfa Institute CFA-Level-I Chartered Financial Analyst Reliable Test Notes - Omgzlook

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CFA-Level-I PDF DEMO:

QUESTION NO: 1
Which of the following calculations can be successfully performed without knowing the required rate of return?
I). Net Present Value
II). Internal Rate of Return
III). Modified Internal Rate of Return
IV). Time-weighted Rate of Return
V. Dollar-weighted Rate of Return
VI). Valuing a common stock using the Dividend Discount Model
VII). Valuing a common stock using the Free-cash-flow-to-equity Model
A. II, IV, V
B. II, V, VI
C. II, IV, V, VI, VII
Answer: A
Explanation: Of the financial figures listed, only the Internal Rate of Return, which is also known as the
"Dollar-Weighted Rate of Return," and the Time-Weighted Rate of Return, can be calculated without knowing the required rate of return.

QUESTION NO: 2
A firm should cease to do business when:
A. Price average variable cost
B. Price marginal cost
C. Price average total cost
Answer: A
Explanation: A firm should cease to do business when P AVC. In this case the company is not even making incremental revenue for each additional product sold. When AVC P ATC, the firm while not profitable will be making money above its variable costs. If P MC or ATC MC, the firm may be profitable
but not maximizing profit potential.

QUESTION NO: 3
ABC Co. uses a defined benefit pension plan. At year-end the pension obligation is $27.4 million and
plan assets $24.5 million. ABC's balance sheet will report:
A. A net asset (prepaid pension cost) of $2.9 million.
B. A net pension liability of $2.9 million.
C. Nothing, only footnote disclosure is required.
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 4
The British pound sterling has a bid price of $1.4419 and an ask price of $1.4428. What is the bid-ask spread?
A. 0.62%
B. 0.09%
C. 0.062%
Answer: C
Explanation: The bid-ask spread is computed as follows: Percent spread = (Ask price - Bid price)/Ask price X 100, or 1.4428 - .4419/1.4428 X 100 = 0.062%.

QUESTION NO: 5
In an inefficient market, if an asset's intrinsic value is estimated to be $10 while the market price is $12, the asset appears to be:
A. overvalued.
B. undervalued.
C. uncertain.
Answer: C
Explanation: This is because the market is inefficient and the intrinsic value is not a good estimate of the
market value of the asset.

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Updated: May 26, 2022