CFA-Level-I Pass Guide - Cfa Valid Cfa Institute CFA-Level-I Chartered Financial Analyst Test Objectives - Omgzlook

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CFA-Level-I PDF DEMO:

QUESTION NO: 1
Use of the percentage-of-completion method, versus the completed contract method results in:
A. higher debt equity ratios and cash flows.
B. higher profitability ratios in the early years of the contract.
C. higher total income over the life of the contract.
Answer: B
Explanation: Percentage of completion results in the same cash flows and income over the life of the contract. In the early years of the contract, the profit margins will be higher.

QUESTION NO: 2
The following data pertains to the McGuire Company:
Net income: $15,000. 5,000 shares of common stock issued on January 1st. 10 percent stock dividend issued on June 1st. 1000 shares of common stock were repurchased on July 1st. 1000 shares of 10 percent, par $100 preferred stock each convertible into 8 shares of common were outstanding the whole year.
What is the company's basic earnings per share (EPS)?
A. 1.2
B. 1.0
C. 2.5
Answer: B
Explanation: Number of average shares:
1 /1: 5,500 shares issued (includes 10% stock dividend on 6/1) x 12 months = 66,000. 7/1: 1,000 shares
repurchased x 6 months = -6,000. 60,000 shares/12 months = 5,000 average shares. Preferred dividends
= ($10)( $1000) = $10,000. Basic EPS = [$15,000(NI) - $10,000(preferred dividends)]/5,000 shares =
$ 5,000/5,000 shares = $1/share

QUESTION NO: 3
A corporation's free cash flow is its:
A. Cash flow from operating activities that is not subject to income taxes.
B. Cash flow from operating activities available after basic business obligations have been met.
C. Cash flow from operating activities less all cash payments for investing and financing activities.
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 4
Service cost recognized in an employer-sponsored defined benefit plan and included in the net pension expense calculation represents the:
A. Increase in the projected benefit obligation resulting from the passage of time.
B. Actuarial present value of benefits attributed by the pension benefit formula to an employee during a period.
C. Amortization of the discount on unrecognized prior service costs.
Answer: B
Explanation: Per SFAS No. 87, service cost is defined as the actuarial present value of benefits attributed
by the pension benefit formula to an employee during a period.

QUESTION NO: 5
The British pound sterling has a bid price of $1.4419 and an ask price of $1.4428. What is the bid-ask spread?
A. 0.62%
B. 0.09%
C. 0.062%
Answer: C
Explanation: The bid-ask spread is computed as follows: Percent spread = (Ask price - Bid price)/Ask price X 100, or 1.4428 - .4419/1.4428 X 100 = 0.062%.

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Updated: May 26, 2022