CFA-Level-I Name & Cfa Relevant CFA-Level-I Questions - Cfa Institute CFA-Level-I Chartered Financial Analyst - Omgzlook

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CFA-Level-I PDF DEMO:

QUESTION NO: 1
If a firm's asset turnover were to increase by 10% and the tax rate were to increase from 35% to
40%,
leaving all else constant, the resultant change in the firm's ROE equals ________.
A. +1.5%
B. -1.9%
C. -1.1%
Answer: A
Explanation: ROE = Net income/Equity. Using the Extended DuPont System, = (EBT/sales)*(sales/total assets)*(total assets/equity)*(1-tax rate) The asset turnover ratio equals sales/total assets.
Therefore,
ROE(after)/ROE(before) = [asset turnover(after)/asset turnover(before)*]*[0.6/0.65] = 1.1*0.6/0.65 =
1.015.
Thus, the ROE increases by 1.5%.

QUESTION NO: 2
On May 15, your firm receives 20 cases of designer pens. On June 30, your firm pays $3,250 for the
pens. On July 15, the pens are sold on credit for $10,500. On September 10, your firm collects the receivable in full. If each transaction occurs at the end of the business day, how many days are in the accounts payable period?
A. 46 days.
B. 57 days.
C. 61 days.
Answer: A
Explanation: B: the number of days in the accounts receivable period. C: the number of days in the inventory period. D: the number of days in the cash cycle. 118 days: the number of days in the operating
cycle.

QUESTION NO: 3
What is the value of a zero-coupon bond that pays $1,000 in five years if the market rate for this
security is 7%?
A. $ 712.99
B. $ 708.92
C. $ 735.43
Answer: B
Explanation: The present value of a payment received n years hence is given by:
n
PV = FV / (1 + R)
where: PV = present value, FV = future value, R = discount rate per period, n = # of periods
Therefore, the value of this bond is:
5 x 2
PV = $ 1,000 / [1 + (0.07/2)] = $708.92.
Note that the semi-annual compounding should be assumed if not specified.

QUESTION NO: 4
A payment of a cash dividend represents a cash outflow from ________.
A. operating activities under the direct method only.
B. investing activities.
C. financing activities.
Answer: C
Explanation: The payment of a dividend is a cash outflow from financing activities because the payment of
a dividend provides owners with a return on their investment.

QUESTION NO: 5
An individual has a 10% probability of suffering from a headache when he has a cold versus 1% when he does not have a cold. If the individual has a probability of developing a cold equal to 5%, what is
the probability that this individual suffers from a headache?
A. 1.45%
B. 2.23%
C. 11%
Answer: A
Explanation: Assume event A is the event in which the individual suffers from a headache. Using the
Total
Probability Rule, P(A) = 0.1 x 0.05 + 0.01 x 0.95 = 1.45%.

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Updated: May 26, 2022