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SY0-401 PDF DEMO:
QUESTION NO: 1
Which of the following would a security administrator implement in order to identify change from the standard configuration on a server?
A. Penetration test
B. Code review
C. Baseline review
D. Design review
Answer: C
Explanation:
The standard configuration on a server is known as the baseline.
The IT baseline protection approach is a methodology to identify and implement computer security measures in an organization. The aim is the achievement of an adequate and appropriate level of security for IT systems. This is known as a baseline.
A baseline report compares the current status of network systems in terms of security updates, performance or other metrics to a predefined set of standards (the baseline).
QUESTION NO: 2
A developer needs to utilize AES encryption in an application but requires the speed of encryption and decryption to be as fast as possible. The data that will be secured is not sensitive so speed is valued over encryption complexity. Which of the following would BEST satisfy these requirements?
A. AES with output feedback
B. AES with cipher feedback
C. AES with cipher block chaining
D. AES with counter mode
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 3
Which of the following can hide confidential or malicious data in the whitespace of other files
(e.g. JPEGs)?
A. Hashing
B. Transport encryption
C. Digital signatures
D. Steganography
Answer: D
Explanation:
Steganography is the process of concealing a file, message, image, or video within another file, message, image, or video.
Note: The advantage of steganography over cryptography alone is that the intended secret message does not attract attention to itself as an object of scrutiny. Plainly visible encrypted messages, no matter how unbreakable will arouse interest, and may in themselves be incriminating in countries where encryption is illegal. Thus, whereas cryptography is the practice of protecting the contents of a message alone, steganography is concerned with concealing the fact that a secret message is being sent, as well as concealing the contents of the message.
QUESTION NO: 4
A security administrator is responsible for performing periodic reviews of user permission settings due to high turnover and internal transfers at a corporation. Which of the following BEST describes the procedure and security rationale for performing such reviews?
A. Review all user permissions and group memberships to ensure only the minimum set of permissions required to perform a job is assigned.
B. Review the permissions of all transferred users to ensure new permissions are granted so the employee can work effectively.
C. Ensure all users have adequate permissions and appropriate group memberships, so the volume of help desk calls is reduced.
D. Ensure former employee accounts have no permissions so that they cannot access any network file stores and resources.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Reviewing user permissions and group memberships form part of a privilege audit is used to determine that all groups, users, and other accounts have the appropriate privileges assigned according to the policies of the corporation.
QUESTION NO: 5
Which of the following types of application attacks would be used to identify malware causing security breaches that have NOT yet been identified by any trusted sources?
A. Zero-day
B. LDAP injection
C. XML injection
D. Directory traversal
Answer: A
Explanation:
The security breaches have NOT yet been identified. This is zero day vulnerability.
A zero day vulnerability refers to a hole in software that is unknown to the vendor. This security hole is then exploited by hackers before the vendor becomes aware and hurries to fix it-this exploit is called a zero day attack. Uses of zero day attacks can include infiltrating malware, spyware or allowing unwanted access to user information. The term
"zero day" refers to the unknown nature of the hole to those outside of the hackers, specifically, the developers. Once the vulnerability becomes known, a race begins for the developer, who must protect users.
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Updated: May 27, 2022