SY0-401 Simulations - CompTIA Security+ Certification Latest Vce Test Simulator - Omgzlook

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SY0-401 PDF DEMO:

QUESTION NO: 1
A security administrator is responsible for performing periodic reviews of user permission settings due to high turnover and internal transfers at a corporation. Which of the following BEST describes the procedure and security rationale for performing such reviews?
A. Review all user permissions and group memberships to ensure only the minimum set of permissions required to perform a job is assigned.
B. Review the permissions of all transferred users to ensure new permissions are granted so the employee can work effectively.
C. Ensure all users have adequate permissions and appropriate group memberships, so the volume of help desk calls is reduced.
D. Ensure former employee accounts have no permissions so that they cannot access any network file stores and resources.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Reviewing user permissions and group memberships form part of a privilege audit is used to determine that all groups, users, and other accounts have the appropriate privileges assigned according to the policies of the corporation.

QUESTION NO: 2
A developer needs to utilize AES encryption in an application but requires the speed of encryption and decryption to be as fast as possible. The data that will be secured is not sensitive so speed is valued over encryption complexity. Which of the following would BEST satisfy these requirements?
A. AES with output feedback
B. AES with cipher feedback
C. AES with cipher block chaining
D. AES with counter mode
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 3
Which of the following protocols operates at the HIGHEST level of the OSI model?
A. ICMP
B. IPSec
C. SCP
D. TCP
Answer: C
Explanation:
SCP (Secure Copy) uses SSH (Secure Shell). SSH runs in the application layer (layer 7) of the OSI model.

QUESTION NO: 4
Which of the following would a security administrator implement in order to identify change from the standard configuration on a server?
A. Penetration test
B. Code review
C. Baseline review
D. Design review
Answer: C
Explanation:
The standard configuration on a server is known as the baseline.
The IT baseline protection approach is a methodology to identify and implement computer security measures in an organization. The aim is the achievement of an adequate and appropriate level of security for IT systems. This is known as a baseline.
A baseline report compares the current status of network systems in terms of security updates, performance or other metrics to a predefined set of standards (the baseline).

QUESTION NO: 5
Which of the following is an attack vector that can cause extensive physical damage to a datacenter without physical access?
A. CCTV system access
B. Dial-up access
C. Changing environmental controls
D. Ping of death
Answer: C
Explanation:
Environmental systems include heating, air conditioning, humidity control, fire suppression, and power systems. All of these functions are critical to a well-designed physical plant. A computer room will typically require full-time environmental control. Changing any of these controls (when it was set to its optimum values) will result in damage.

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Updated: May 27, 2022